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ia
ib
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Перевод: infinitive
[прилагательное] неопределенный; [существительное] инфинитив ; неопределенная форма глагола
Тезаурус:
- If the tendency observed with have and help holds true here, the to infinitive should evoke its event as somehow subsequent to that of the verb of perception in these sentences.
- Other linguists imply even more clearly that there is no difference in meaning between the two versions of the infinitive by claiming that to is meaningless when it precedes the bare infinitive form.
- A glaring example of this is Andersson's claim that to has meaning in He trained the dog to perform some very clever tricks, where it is prepositional, but not in He taught the dog to perform some very clever tricks, where it is a pure infinitive marker without meaning (1985: 267).
- Uses of infinitive with to.
- According to Jespersen (1940: 158, 180), see with the bare infinitive denotes immediate perception, whereas with the to infinitive the meaning conveyed is that of inference or logical conclusion.
- Unlike the active voice, the passive poses a problem with verbs of perception, since the distribution of the infinitive appears to be in systematic contradiction with what is observed above.
- Here the student is provided with the infinitive, either in isolation or as a part of a sentence.
- More precisely, the infinitive evokes an event, and to, the movement from an instant situated before this event up to the instant at which the event begins.
- For example I'd like to swim (infinitive with to): I saw him go (infinitive without to):: To have continued would have been a mistake (perfect infinitive); He wants to be told (passive infinitive).
- In order to discern the reason for the use of to with the infinitive in passive sentences of the type just mentioned, we must begin therefore by trying to observe the kind of meaning which these sentences express and the type of context in which they are used.
- The use of the bare infinitive in any of the above cases would make the subject of help seem too active.
- While it is true to say that the bare infinitive is more frequent in American English - Algeo (1988: 22) found that the Brown University Corpus has only 25 per cent usage of to infinitives after help where the Lancaster-Oslo/Bergen Corpus has 73 per cent - this begs the question nevertheless because both the bare and the to infinitives are used on both sides of the Atlantic.
- And if to is completely meaningless when used with the infinitive, why isn't it tending to disappear completely?
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